Christianity’s whole basis for what they call “salvation” is that Jesus was sinless and perfect — after all, he was “God Almighty” in the flesh. But if Jesus was not perfect and sinless, then he couldn’t be God, could he? What if Jesus wasn’t perfect and sinless? What if he wasn’t God?
Jesus had a flesh and blood father
Joseph, now awake, did as the angel directed him, and went in to Mary his espoused bride. In her womb she conceived the Holy One. (Gospel of the Nazirenes 2:12)
And Yeshua was beginning his thirtieth year, being by physical body indeed the Son of Joseph and Mary (Gospel of the Nazirenes 8:8)
“We have found Him, of whom Moses in the Law and the Prophets did write. He is Yeshua of Nazareth the son of Joseph and Mary. (Gospel of the Nazirenes 10:8)
Philip findeth Nathanael, and saith unto him, We have found him, of whom Moses in the law, and the prophets, did write, Jesus of Nazareth, the son of Joseph. (Jn 1:45)
Jesus was not the second person of the Trinity in the flesh
If Jesus had a flesh and blood father, then the “holy ghost” wasn’t his father. Jesus never claimed to be God nor even ever inferred it.
Did Jesus have offspring?
Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hand. (Isa 53:10)
IF Isaiah 53 was about Jesus (which I don’t believe it was, but just for the sake of this article…), it says he would “see his seed“. That literally means his offspring. Now you could say that is speaking metaphorically… but then the Gospel of the Nazirenes says his companion was Mary Magdalene. In that gospel he also calls her his bride. And the Gospel of Philip says he kissed her often on her mouth.
If he didn’t see his offspring and his days were prolonged a very short time, then the “Suffering Servant” doesn’t seem like it was about Jesus. Isaiah 53 was most likely, as the Jews claim, about Israel as it appears taking those Scriptures into context.
“He shall prolong his days”, how was Jesus’ “days prolonged” if he was crucified at 33 years old? I guess you might say that means that he was raised from the dead. Well, that would be less than two months, at the most, if it’s referring to the resurrection. But then he may have not even died, much less “ascend into heaven” — that was very likely all a made up story.
Did Jesus have a personal life?
When He was eighteen years old, Yeshua was married to Miriam, a virgin of the tribe of Judah with whom He lived seven years. (Gospel of the Nazirenes) (6:13)
Again I say to you, I and My Bride are one, even as Mary Magdalene, whom I have chosen and sanctified as a type, is one with Me… (Gospel of the Nazirenes) (65:10)
There were three who always walked with the Lord: Mary, his mother, and her sister, and Magdalene, the one who was called his companion. His sister and his mother and his companion were each a Mary. (Gospel of Philip)
And the companion of the [Savior] Mary Magdalene. [He] loved her more than all the disciples, and used to kiss her often on her mouth. (Gospel of Philip)
That’s not to say that Jesus actually was married and had children, but it wouldn’t be wrong if he did. What I’m getting at here is that Jesus was flesh and blood, a normal human being the same as you or me. He had all the same weaknesses and pain and needs that we have. He felt what we feel… because he was a human being.
But IF Isa 53 WERE about Jesus, then he lived long enough to have children (“see his seed”) and he would have survived the crucifixion, because it says “he shall prolong his days”. That would make Jesus very human and not God in the flesh and consequently subject to imperfection, being a normal human.
Was Jesus capable of sin?
I will be his father, and he shall be my son. If he commit iniquity, I will chasten him with the rod of men, and with the stripes of the children of men (a prophecy about the Messiah) (2Sa 7:14)
Though he were a Son (speaking about Jesus), yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered; And being made perfect… (Heb 5:8,9)
The main messianic prophecies themselves indicate that Jesus was capable of sin: “If he commit iniquity“ and in the book of Hebrews “learned he obedience“. If he learned obedience and suffered, that means he was human, for only God is perfect according to the Bible.
The conditional phrase “If he commit iniquity, I will chasten him with the rod of men“, may not be any kind of proof that he sinned, but is absolute proof that he was surely capable of sin. That means, 100% human and no part God.
Jesus was baptized for remission of sins
“Behold the mother of the Lord and his brothers said to him, ‘John the Baptist baptizes for the forgiveness of sins. Let us go and be baptized by him.’ But Jesus said to them, ‘in what way have I sinned that I should go and be baptized by him? Unless perhaps, what I have just said is a sin of ignorance.'” (Matthew’s Gospel of the Hebrews)
If Jesus’ own mother, who knew everything about him, suggested to him that he be baptized “for the forgiveness of sins”, what does that say about Jesus? If Mary knew that he was God in the flesh and was perfect and sinless, then why would she suggest that Jesus be baptized?
And he himself said that what he said may have been a “sin of ignorance”. It seems like he is admitting that he is capable of sin. (Of course, the church fathers only made Jesus into a god-man many years later, so Mary couldn’t possibly have had an idea about him being God.)
There is nowhere in the Gospels that even hints that his mother knew that he would be fulfilling prophecy by being baptized by John. If John was baptizing for the remission of sins, and his mother and brethren suggested he be baptized, they wouldn’t have if they had thought he was God in the flesh.
The Son of a man
Over 90 times in the gospels Jesus refers to himself as the “son of man”. This literally means son of a “human being”. What would the motive be for Jesus doing such a thing if it were not for emphasizing that he was actually the son of a man — namely Joseph? and a mere man himself?
Could it be that he knew that in short time men would publish a story that he was born of a virgin in order to make a god-man out of him? He surely knew by the prophecies that he had to descend from Solomon who Joseph was a descendant of in order to qualify to be the Messiah. He had to have known that the Messiah was to be a flesh and blood descendant of king Solomon according to the messianic prophecies.
It is commonly understood that as a natural-born human being, man is subject to imperfections. Sons of men marry, have children and make mistakes. But what becomes evident through all the writings about Jesus is that he was a natural-born son of man, as he himself frequently affirmed. He was the biological son of Joseph; he probably married and could possibly even have had children; he was subject to imperfection as any other normal human being.
Next: Who Was Jesus Part 1 | Did Jesus Really Die?